Failing Kant's categorical imperative entails acting on a maxim that cannot be universalized.

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SUPPORTED

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3 sources for · 0 against

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Is it true that failing Kant's categorical imperative entails acting on a maxim that cannot be universalized?

Yes. According to Kant's philosophy, the categorical imperative requires that actions be based on maxims capable of being universalized.

Verdict: SUPPORTED · 3 sources for, 0 against · Last checked 4 Aug 2026

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Evidence for · 3

Wikipedia: Categorical imperative

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Wikipedia: Categorical imperative. (n.d.). Wikipedia. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Categorical_imperative

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More for · 2

Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy: Kant ’s Social and Political Philosophy

References acting in accordance with a maxim through the categorical imperative as the supreme rule.

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Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy: Kant ’s Social and Political Philosophy. (n.d.). Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy. https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/kant-social-political/

Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy: Kant ’s Philosophical Development

Connects Kant's categorical imperative to universalizability and treating humanity as an end.

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Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy: Kant ’s Philosophical Development. (n.d.). Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy. https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/kant-development/

Related receipts

Is it true that Kant's categorical imperative generates universalizable maxims that forbid lying and theft? SUPPORTED related question, same topic
Is it true that the first and second formulations of Kant's categorical imperative are logically equivalent? SUPPORTED related question, same topic

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first checked04 Aug 2026

judged → SUPPORTED · 7504 Aug 2026

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