Transliteration systems widely use ph to represent the Greek-derived voiceless bilabial aspirate
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Reference materials and linguistics literature indicate that the Greek letter phi, which historically represented an aspirated voiceless bilabial sound, was romanized and transliterated as 'ph'.
Phi - Wikipedia
Archaic form of Phi
Phi (/ˈfaɪ, ˈfiː/ Play audioⓘ FY, FEE; uppercase Φ, lowercase φ or ϕ; Ancient Greek: ϕεῖ pheî [pʰéî̯]; Modern Greek: φι fi [fi]) is the twenty-first letter of the Greek alphabet.
In Archaic and Classical Greek(c. 9th to 4th century BC), it represented an aspirated voiceless bilabial plosive([pʰ]), which was the origin of its usual romanization as ⟨ph⟩. During the later part of Classical Antiquity, in Koine Greek(c. 4th century BC to 4th century AD), its pronunciation shifted to a voiceless bilabial fricative([ɸ]), and by the Byzantine Greek period (c. 4th century AD to 15th century AD) it developed its modern pronunciation as a voiceless labiodental fricative([f]). The romanization of the Modern Greek phoneme is therefore usually ⟨f⟩.
It may be that phi originated as the letter qoppa(Ϙ, ϙ), and initially represented the sound /kʷʰ/ before shifting to Classical Greek [pʰ]. In traditional Greek numerals, phi has a value of 500 (φʹ) or 500,000 (͵φ). The Cyrillic letter Ef(Ф, ф) descends from phi.
Like other Greek letters, lowercase phi (encoded as the Unicode character U+03C6 φ GREEK SMALL LETTER PHI) is used as a mathematical or scientific sym
# Pronunciation of P in Latin, versus Ph in Greek
Tags: pronunciation, latin, greek, semitic-languages, stops
- Score: 6
- Views: 1622
- Answers: 2
- Answered: yes
- Asked by: Tyler Durden (845 rep)
- Asked: 2021-02-03
- Edited: 2021-02-03
- Site: linguistics
## Question
In Latin, it seems some sounds that are pronounced like an "F" in Greek, are pronounced like a "P", why is this?
For example, we have the Greek word Phoenicians, and this word always seems to be pronounced like an "F" in all languages, except Latin, where we have statements such as in Virgil:
Daphni, tuum Poenos etiam ingemuisse leones interitum...
[Daphnis, even the Punic lions lamented your passing...]
So, the Phoenician city, Carthage is always pronounced apparently with a "P" by the Latins. Does this suggest that that the early Romans actually pronounced the letter "P" as an "F"? Or maybe there is confusion with the digamma? It's hard to believe this because Latin has the regular "F" sound in its alphabet, for example filius (son). So, why would it not be Foeni, instead of Poeni?
To make it more confusing, the Latins apparently transliterated phi as "PH", not "F". So, for example, Cicero calls his speeche
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